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Why in the vast majority of cases is there an inverse relationship between price and
For normal goods the demand for X varies inversely with the price of X. There are two main reasons for
this.
For any price change there is a substitution effect and an income effect. For example if the price of
Tesco Steak falls, some consumers will switch towards Tesco steak (away from other brands or other
meats) - because it has become relatively cheaper. More utility can be gained from each pound spent.
This switching
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types of products. Giffen Goods are strongly inferior. Veblen
goods are sometimes known as goods or services of ostentatious consumption. Here demand rises with
price if the market price is taken to be a sign of quality or where consumers are more concerned with the
satifsaction gleaned from other people seeing them consuming expensive products. designer clothes and
the Jim Keefe revision guide to A-Level Economics spring readily to mind as good examples to use.
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